Tag Archives: Acts 2:38

Saved by Grace #8 — SAVED BY GRACE, SAVED IN BAPTISM

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We are now ready to explain how baptism and grace are related. First, I will state several basic principles to keep in mind when studying baptism. (A) Every doctrine, including baptism, is based on Scripture first, not on experience. (B) We cannot draw our conclusions about the meaning of baptism from non-Biblical sources, such as the Latin word sacramentum (which often meant “oath, pledge, covenant”). (C) Christian baptism began on the Day of Pentecost. Thus we must not try to base our understanding of it on pre-Pentecostal practices, such as OT circumcision or John’s baptism. (D) There is only ONE … Continue reading →

CAN ONE BE “SPIRITUALLY ALIVE” WITHOUT BAPTISM? (PART ONE)

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CAN ONE BE “SPIRITUALLY ALIVE” WITHOUT BAPTISM? (PART ONE) by Jack Cottrell (Notes) on Thursday, April 18, 2013 at 8:47am QUESTION: When I was a young adult I learned that baptism was important for my salvation, so I was immersed. My problem is that this did not seem to result in the death to sin and rebirth to new spiritual life described in Romans 6:1-4 and Colossians 2:12 as happening in baptism. At another time, however, quite separate from my baptism, I went through a particularly strong life event when I did die to self and begin to live for … Continue reading →

HOW DOES THE HOLY SPIRIT WORK?

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HOW DOES THE HOLY SPIRIT WORK? by Jack Cottrell (Notes) on Tuesday, October 30, 2012 at 3:14pm QUESTION: I am confused about the various references to the working of the Holy Spirit [HS] in the Book of Acts. E.g., do Acts 1:5 and 1:8 refer to the same work of the Spirit? Is the promise in 1:5 fulfilled in 2:4? Does 11:15-16 tie 1:5 and 2:4 together? ANSWER: Once source of such confusion is the assumption that all works of the HS are basically the same. Some add to this the assumption that all works of the Spirit involve salvation. … Continue reading →

IS BAPTISM A PART OF THE GOSPEL?

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IS BAPTISM A PART OF THE GOSPEL? by Jack Cottrell (Notes) on Friday, September 28, 2012 at 2:13pm QUESTION: I know someone who argues that baptism cannot be related to salvation because (a) salvation comes via the power of the gospel (Rom. 1:16), and (b) baptism is not part of the gospel (1 Cor. 1:17). Therefore (c) baptism has nothing to do with salvation. What do you think about this argument? ANSWER: This is a bit of a twist on the usual Zwinglian (faith-only) argument against baptism for salvation based on this Corinthians text. I have briefly discussed and refuted … Continue reading →

How Can Unimmersed Persons Display the Fruit of the Spirit?

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How Can Unimmersed Persons Display the Fruit of the Spirit? by Jack Cottrell (Notes) on Wednesday, April 18, 2012 at 8:52pm QUESTION: Is it possible for a person who does not have the indwelling of the Holy Spirit to bear the fruit of the Spirit as named in Galatians 5:22-23? I know individuals who have not obeyed Acts 2:38, which connects receiving the indwelling Holy Spirit with baptism, and yet they seem to exhibit aspects of the Spirit’s fruit. How can we explain this? ANSWER: The reason for the frequent confusion on this issue is the false assumption that none … Continue reading →

THE DOCTRINE OF THE TRINITY

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THE DOCTRINE OF THE TRINITY by Jack Cottrell (Notes) on Monday, January 16, 2012 at 11:11am QUESTION: Can you explain the doctrine of the Trinity? ANSWER: God is ONE, but he is also THREE. He is one and three at the same time. This is the doctrine of the Trinity. (See my book, God the Redeemer, ch. 3.) There is no biblical term that actually means “trinity”; e.g., this is not the connotation of the KJV word “Godhead” nor of the Greek terms which it represents. We do find the concept of the Trinity in Scripture, however. Exactly what is … Continue reading →

“CONSCIENTIOUS RESPONSE TO AVAILABLE LIGHT”

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“CONSCIENTIOUS RESPONSE TO AVAILABLE LIGHT” by Jack Cottrell (Notes) on Friday, November 25, 2011 at 12:03pm QUESTION: You make a big deal of the principle of “conscientious response to available light,” especially in explaining how you think God will judge those who are not Biblically baptized. I don’t see this phrase used anywhere in the Bible, and I don’t see how it can be derived from Romans 4:15. Doesn’t the Bible say that we will be judged by the standard of the words of Jesus (John 12:48)? Wouldn’t this principle excuse every believer whose thinking is wrong on any issue … Continue reading →

WHEN WERE THE APOSTLES BAPTIZED?

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WHEN WERE THE APOSTLES BAPTIZED? by Jack Cottrell (Notes) on Tuesday, November 22, 2011 at 9:47am QUESTION: Do we know when the apostles received the baptism in which the indwelling gift of the Holy Spirit is given? I assume they received John’s baptism. Do we assume that at some point they were rebaptized? Does their ability to speak in tongues (languages) in Acts 2:1ff. show that they had the indwelling of the Spirit at that point? How does John 20:22 fit in? ANSWER: Since we are not specifically told when (or even if) the apostles were baptized with Christian baptism, … Continue reading →

IS THE “BAPTISM OF DESIRE” SUFFICIENT?

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IS THE “BAPTISM OF DESIRE” SUFFICIENT? by Jack Cottrell (Notes) on Wednesday, October 19, 2011 at 9:36am QUESTION: I know of a severely-handicapped person who had a sincere desire to be baptized in the Biblical way, but because of the disability simply could not be immersed. It was decided to put this person under the shower and cover him with water in such a way that he was extremely wet from head-to-toe and had to hold his breath for a time while the water was showered over his face. Those conducting this “baptism” emphasized the importance of the person’s commitment … Continue reading →

THE IMPERATIVES OF ACTS 2:38

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THE IMPERATIVES OF ACTS 2:38 by Jack Cottrell (Notes) on Friday, September 16, 2011 at 1:21pm QUESTION: Some interpreters of Acts 2:38 make a big deal of the difference between second person imperative for the verb “repent,” and third person imperative for the verb “be baptized.” My systematic theology professor says that “be baptized,” as third person imperative, is not a command as such but is rather “a strong plea.” His basis is the same usage in Galatians 1:8, where Paul says “let them be accursed,” which is not really a mandatory command to God but a strong plea. What … Continue reading →