HomeNotesELECTION, CALVINISM, AND THE BIBLE, PART TWO

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ELECTION, CALVINISM, AND THE BIBLE, PART TWO — 10 Comments

  1. Pingback:ASK BOB: “What does the Bible teach about divine election?” | Bob Russell

  2. Great article. I’ve explored the Calvinism/Arminianism/Molinism/Amyraldianism spaces for so many years, and always wanted to find a position that takes the texts at face value, in context. Your nuanced types of election are very helpful, especially the Ephesians Jew/Gentile Context. I was wondering you thoughts on a few things though. Do you believe that there are greater and lesser levels of God’s drawing, prevenient grace? Do all people have the exact same level of the “wooing” force of the Spirit? Or is there a level that is stronger, and much more able to break a hardened will, a will that wasn’t formerly predisposed to the common means of grace? Was the direct theophany that Saul (of Tarsus) experienced a stronger drawing than others have received? If so, could it be said that there are some instances where God, according to His purpose, regardless of a person’s prior response to prevenient grace, chooses to bombard him/her with a level of grace that guarantees their submission. And if this is the case, could it also be said that God chooses to leave others (the non-Saul’s) in a state of their own now-enabled-free-will, to build upon or not build upon prior prevenient grace, though God could have bombarded them similarly if He so chose. In both cases, does it not come back to God’s choice of how to operate, either irresistibly at times (though infrequently), or through His normal mode offering grace upon positive receipt of grace (Mt 7:7, 11:25, 13:12), i.e. not-as-tampered-with-free-will. I believe Hubmaier, argued for this mediate position. Richard Baxter, an Almyridian, who was trying to bridge Calvinists and Arminians, also made this point. I just wondered how you would respond. Thanks Dr. Cottrell!

    • It is possible, I believe, that God’s drawing might be more intense for some, in response to the degree of rebellion they are throwing back at God. I would not agree, though, that God will choose to increase this to a level that guarantees submission. That violates the free-will nature of conversion. Having so said, I would not use Saul of Tarsus as a model for this idea. I see his case as unique, related to God’s unique purpose for him. To say that God might override free will, even though infrequently, is little different from Calvinism, if at all.

      • Thanks for the prompt response Dr. Cottrell. I guess we’d have to define what it means to “override free will”. If God fully disclosed His existence, His love, His Holiness, and the reality of His coming justice to someone, perhaps through a direct theophany and/or supernatural illumination of the person’s mind, resulting in a high degree of probability (perhaps even a 10 out of 10 chance) of conversion, does that mean God “overrode” their will, or simply that He removed all external barriers for them to freely choose a different way? If such an intensity is “overriding”, then what intensity of prevenient grace is not “overriding”? It seems subjective to draw a line somewhere, when any prevenient Grace could be perceived as God overriding a sinner’s hostile will. So in the end, I’m primarily questioning: (1) Is there an intensity of prevenient grace that 10 out of 10 times would result in a “free will” conversion?, (2) Who makes the final decision whether God enacts such an intensity, or any increase of intensity, God or man?

        • As soon as you entertain the concept of “prevenient grace” you have surrendered to the Calvinist doctrine of a person’s total inability to respond to the gospel. By definition, prevenient grace is needed to overcome that supposed inability.
          However, the Bible doesn’t support the notion of total inability. It therefore does not support the notion of prevenient grace as an “overriding” force.

          • Hi Donald. Are you suggesting that no operation of the Spirit occurs (conviction, opening of heart, illumination, etc) prior to conversion? What happened to Lydia in Acts 16? If Any operation of the Spirit occurs, then my two questions still need answered, I believe.

          • On the work of the Holy Spirit on the sinner before conversion, see my book, Power from on High: What the Bible Says About the Holy Spirit (College Press, 2007), chapter 6, “The Work of the Holy Spirit Before Conversion,” pp. 189-236.

          • That is one reason I do not subscribe to the Wesleyan concept of prevenient grace. But I do hold to a similar idea that I call original grace (see entries here discussing it). This view says that Romans 5 does mean that the whole human race was (tentatively) brought under a curse because of Adam’s sin. It doesn’t matter what content you think might be included in that curse, because Paul’s main point is that whatever it WOULD have been, it is removed for everyone by the cross of Jesus Christ. All babies are born pure, free, and innocent. As they grow up they do acquire a sinful nature because of living in this fallen world. The question here has to do with the extent to which God helps one overcome this acquired resistance to his law and his gospel. My point is that he will not apply an influence that guarantees a positive response. That would be equivalent to Calvinism.

        • Chad, sorry for the delay in replying; I just now saw your follow-up question to me.
          Of course I don’t deny the working of the Holy Spirit prior to conversion. But your questions seem to flow from a false premise: that the “intensity” of His work overrides the sinner’s will, or not.

          If He truly overrides any sinner’s will, we’re back to the two false concepts of selective treatment for some but not others, and irresistible grace.