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God’s Foreknowledge in the Bible — 8 Comments

  1. Can you explain why in Genesis God repents for creating the earth? Or why he changes his mind after the people of Nineva repent? Or why he God says to Saul I would have established your throne for ever but instead he sins so David becomes the chosen one. There are several scriptures that indicate we have free will in far more compelling way than some of the scriptures you have referred to. God cannot have a meaningful relationship with is if he has foreknowledge of all our thoughts and actions. I think you need to have a look at some epistemology and decide what kind of knowledge God has and whether or not he knows it from outside or inside of time. William Lane Craig has some interesting arguments.

    • I say that this is irrelevant to the question of foreknowledge in Romans 8:29. The proper way to understand foreknowledge in this text is to carefully analyze how the New Testament itself uses the vocabulary of ginosko and its cognates, which I have done in my Commentary on Romans.

  2. I understand the concept of God knowing all that will happen and this is a good explanation. You seem to argue God does not change his mind, but isn’t that what he does in Jonah 3:10? He announces He is going to destroy the city the changes his actions based on their response. I see this as a clear indication God will change His mind based on our actions!

    • Since God foreknows our actions, He does not have to “change His mind.” He bases his dealings with us on this foreknowledge of how we will interact with them. When God issues a statement such as Jonah 3:4, this is actually a warning of what will happen UNLESS there is repentance (see v. 9). But if there is repentance, God does not follow through on the warning. God actually tells us that this is His modus operandi in Jeremiah 18:7ff. The point about foreknowledge is that God already knows how this whole process will work out: He knows His warnings, He knows how men will respond to them, and He knows how He will respond to their responses. His foreknowledge does not make the human side of such interaction any less real, nor does it make God’s side any less real. The process is genuine from both sides, but God is not taken by surprise regarding any part of it.

  3. Hi there. I don’t really understand what you’re saying about predestination. You mention that Calvinists are wrong to believe their position on predestination, but I don’t understand the distinction you’re trying to make regarding their interpretation of Romans 8:29.

    • I did not actually discuss how Calvinists interpret Romans 8:29. Their overall view of predestination is this: In God’s eternal existence, prior to creation, God issued what they call an “eternal decree,” in which God predestined EVERYTHING that will ever happen in this universe, including human acts of sin and human acts of faith and repentance. Thus God predetermined that Adam and Eve would sin, and that this would condemn all their descendants to be born without free will (totally depraved) and born condemned to hell. But another part of the decree was that God unconditionally chose (elected) some of these doomed individuals to be saved, and determined that they would hear the gospel, would be given the gifts of faith and repentance, and would ultimately go to heaven. The rest God determined to leave in their doomed state and to ultimately send them to hell. None of this depends on the individual making a choice either to sin or to accept salvation. It is all God’s unilateral predetermined plan. Any “foreknowledge” God has about any of this is based on the fact that God predetermined it all in the first place, as the content of his comprehensive eternal decree. In fact, all Calvinists I have seen do not even interpret the word “foreknowledge” in Rom. 8:29 as actual foreknowledge. They literally interpret the word as “whom he FORELOVED,” or “whom he FOREORDAINED.” I.e., they make the word “foreknowledge” equivalent to predestination itself. Thus in their suggested meaning it would have to read “whom he predestined, he predestined . . . .” Basically they are denying that the word actually means “foreknowledge” in Rom. 8:29. What I am saying is that the word literally means “to know beforehand, to have knowledge of beforehand.” I.e., whom God knew ahead of time would hear and obey the gospel, and whom he knew ahead of time would thus receive the gift of grace and remain faithful unto death, these he predestined to be raised from the dead, at the second coming, in a glorified human existence just like that of Jesus in his present state.